Gary
GaryVasco
Posts: 3,352
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Post by Gary on Oct 16, 2016 4:43:26 GMT
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Post by Admin on Oct 16, 2016 16:06:14 GMT
Gary
Here is my version. I will now look at yours.
The formula for inversion in a circle $K$ centred at the point $q$ on the real axis, and of radius R, is given by
$\mathcal{I}_K(z)=\frac{q\bar{z}+(R^2-q^2)}{\bar{z}-q}$.
If we define the Möbius transformation $M_K$ as
$M_K(z)=\frac{qz+(R^2-q^2)}{z-q}$,
it follows that $\mathcal{I}_K(z)=M_K(\bar{z})$, and $\overline{M_K(\bar{z})}=M_K(z)$. If we define a second circle $J$ with centre on the real axis then we can write $\mathcal{I}_J(z)=M_J(\bar{z})$ and $\overline{M_J(\bar{z})}=M_J(z)$. If we now compose these two inversions then we find that $\mathcal{I}_J[\mathcal{I}_K(z)]=\mathcal{I}_J\mathcal[M_K(\bar{z})]=M_J[\overline{M_K(\bar{z})}]=M_J[M_K(z)].$
So the composition of the two inversions is equal to the composition of the two corresponding Möbius transformations. Since the two Möbius transformations both have real constants $a,b,c,d$, then the composition must also have real constants.
So if we write the composition Möbius transformation as
$M(z)=\frac{az+b}{cz+d}$ with $a,b,c,d$ real,
and then write $z=x+iy$ where $y>0$, and substitute, we find that
$M(z)=\frac{ax+b+iay}{cx+d+icy}=\frac{(ax+b+iay)(cx+d-icy)}{(cx+d+icy)(cx+d-icy)}$
Since $M$ transforms the upper half plane to itself we must have
Im$[M(z)]>0$ or $\frac{ay(cx+d)-cy(ax+b)}{(cx+d)^2+c^2y^2}>0$
Since $y>0$ this simplifies to $ad-bc>0$.
So finally, a motion of type $\mathcal{M}\equiv\mathfrak{R}_{L_2}\circ\mathfrak{R}_{L_1}$, where $L_1$ and $L_2$ are h-lines, corresponds to a Möbius transformation
$M(z)=\frac{az+b}{cz+d}$, where $a,b,c,d$ are real and $(ad-bc)>0$.
Vasco
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Post by Admin on Oct 17, 2016 5:51:15 GMT
Gary
I noticed a typo. I have changed Re (for real part) to Im (for imaginary part) in the above. It is shown in red. I have also added a more appropriate conclusion.
Vasco
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Gary
GaryVasco
Posts: 3,352
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Post by Gary on Oct 17, 2016 16:05:11 GMT
Vasco,
I don't understand the need to create and compose two Möbius transformations. On p. 307, paragraph 3, ln 5, Needham says "Composing two such functions, we find [exercise] ...", where he was referring to the inversion $\mathcal{I}_{K}$. So it appears that he is only calling for the composition of two inversions to create one Möbius transformation.
Also, I am finding it impossible to distinguish tildes from overstrike lines, or are they all overstrike lines? I see that they probably are.
Gary
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Post by Admin on Oct 17, 2016 16:53:12 GMT
Vasco, I don't understand the need to create and compose two Möbius transformations. On p. 307, paragraph 3, ln 5, Needham says "Composing two such functions, we find [exercise] ...", where he was referring to the inversion $\mathcal{I}_{K}$. So it appears that he is only calling for the composition of two inversions to create one Möbius transformation. Also, I am finding it impossible to distinguish tildes from overstrike lines, or are they all overstrike lines? I see that they probably are. Gary Gary I look at it this way: Start with a composition of two inversions in circles whose centres are on the real axis, as Needham says, and then show that such a composition of inversions is equivalent to a composition of two Möbius transformations with real coefficients which in its turn is equivalent to a single Möbius transformations with real coefficients. Do you think that the way the exercise is posed prohibits this? You are right they are all overstrikes. Vasco
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Gary
GaryVasco
Posts: 3,352
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Post by Gary on Oct 17, 2016 20:21:38 GMT
Vasco, I don't understand the need to create and compose two Möbius transformations. On p. 307, paragraph 3, ln 5, Needham says "Composing two such functions, we find [exercise] ...", where he was referring to the inversion $\mathcal{I}_{K}$. So it appears that he is only calling for the composition of two inversions to create one Möbius transformation. Also, I am finding it impossible to distinguish tildes from overstrike lines, or are they all overstrike lines? I see that they probably are. Gary Gary I look at it this way: Start with a composition of two inversions in circles whose centres are on the real axis, as Needham says, and then show that such a composition of inversions is equivalent to a composition of two Möbius transformations with real coefficients which in its turn is equivalent to a single Möbius transformations with real coefficients. Do you think that the way the exercise is posed prohibits this? You are right they are all overstrikes. Vasco Vasco, I wouldn't say the text prohibits your solution but I don't think it invites it. It seems a harder way to conceptualize it. Gary
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Post by Admin on Oct 17, 2016 21:01:48 GMT
Gary I look at it this way: Start with a composition of two inversions in circles whose centres are on the real axis, as Needham says, and then show that such a composition of inversions is equivalent to a composition of two Möbius transformations with real coefficients which in its turn is equivalent to a single Möbius transformations with real coefficients. Do you think that the way the exercise is posed prohibits this? You are right they are all overstrikes. Vasco Vasco, I wouldn't say the text prohibits your solution but I don't think it invites it. It seems a harder way to conceptualize it. Gary Gary I like it because it avoids having to do a lot of algebraic manipulation, and it occurred to me after re-reading section VIII subsection 1 of chapter 3 on page 172. Vasco
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Gary
GaryVasco
Posts: 3,352
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Post by Gary on Oct 18, 2016 4:58:56 GMT
Vasco, I wouldn't say the text prohibits your solution but I don't think it invites it. It seems a harder way to conceptualize it. Gary Gary I like it because it avoids having to do a lot of algebraic manipulation, and it occurred to me after re-reading section VIII subsection 1 of chapter 3 on page 172. Vasco Vasco, It's certainly worthwhile reading that subsection and the following ones, but the quote in paragraph 2, p. 172 again calls for only two reflections. The algebra with $M(z) = \mathcal{I}_{S}(\mathcal{I}_{L}(z))$ was not too bad and the results with the more direct approach were easier to interpret. I am finding subsection 7 slow going, but I'm making some progress. It would be a help if I could reproduce the diagrams, but I'm finding it difficult to plot the orthogonal circles under the different conditions presented by h-rotations, limit rotations, and h-translations (figures [27], [29], [30]). Gary
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Post by Admin on Oct 18, 2016 8:35:19 GMT
Gary I like it because it avoids having to do a lot of algebraic manipulation, and it occurred to me after re-reading section VIII subsection 1 of chapter 3 on page 172. Vasco Vasco, It's certainly worthwhile reading that subsection and the following ones, but the quote in paragraph 2, p. 172 again calls for only two reflections. The algebra with $M(z) = \mathcal{I}_{S}(\mathcal{I}_{L}(z))$ was not too bad and the results with the more direct approach were easier to interpret. I am finding subsection 7 slow going, but I'm making some progress. It would be a help if I could reproduce the diagrams, but I'm finding it difficult to plot the orthogonal circles under the different conditions presented by h-rotations, limit rotations, and h-translations (figures [27], [29], [30]). Gary Gary My solution does only use two reflections/inversions. I agree that the algebra is not too bad except at the end when looking to prove the required inequality $(ad-bc)>0$, which I again sidestepped. I also am having to read and re-read subsection 7. I will be glad to move on to subsection 8, but it may be a case of out of the frying pan and into the fire! I think I have managed the suggested exercise on page 309 at the end of the paragraph started on the last line of page 308. There don't seem to be anymore suggested exercises until subsection 10 on pages 316-317 where there are three! Vasco
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