Gary
GaryVasco
Posts: 3,352
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Post by Gary on Sept 25, 2017 16:07:22 GMT
Vasco,
This is basically a question about a math convention. At the top of p. 434, we find $F(\xi) \equiv f(a + \xi) = f(z)$. Is this $F$ related to the $F_a(z) \equiv \frac{f(z)-f(a)}{z-a}$ on p. 430, mid page? They appear to be quite different objects, but if so, why use $F$ for both in the same chapter, albeit they appear in different sections?
Gary
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Post by Admin on Sept 25, 2017 21:18:46 GMT
Gary
These are not related as far as I can see.
Vasco
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Gary
GaryVasco
Posts: 3,352
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Post by Gary on Sept 25, 2017 22:58:00 GMT
Gary These are not related as far as I can see. Vasco Glad to hear it. I first assumed they must be the same and I spent some time trying to figure out how $F_a(z)$ could morph into $f(z)$.
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