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Post by Admin on Jul 9, 2022 20:18:04 GMT
Vasco
On the next page, that is 483 there is question embedded in the text (middle of first paragraph) "For example, the integral of $ (\bar{z}^2 z)$ along the line segment from $1-i$ to $1 +i$ is clearly a positive multiply of $i$". That is because the line segment is of length $i$ so every time we add an infinitesimal contribution it will be a multiple of i. Is my understanding correct?
Mondo
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Post by Admin on Jul 9, 2022 21:02:35 GMT
Vasco On the next page, that is 483 there is question embedded in the text (middle of first paragraph) "For example, the integral of $ (\bar{z}^2 z)$ along the line segment from $1-i$ to $1 +i$ is clearly a positive multiply of $i$". That is because the line segment is of length $i$ so every time we add an infinitesimal contribution it will be a multiple of i. Is my understanding correct? Mondo Mondo I don't see it like that. As it says on page 483 "You can then quickly get a feel... across the contour" In the example $H(z)=\overline{z}^2z$ and so $\overline{H}=z^2\overline{z}=(z\overline{z})z=|z|^2z$ So $\overline{H}$ is a vector in the same direction as $z$. $K$ is the vertical line from $1-i$ to $1+i$ and $W$ is the integral of the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$ along this line and by symmetry it is clearly zero. $F$ is the integral of the real part of $\overline{H}$ along this same line, a positive number and so the integral of $H$ along this line segment is a positive multiple of $i$. Vasco
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Post by mondo on Jul 10, 2022 5:58:11 GMT
So $\overline{H}$ is a vector in the same direction as $z$. Yes, this is is probably the key factor - that we integrate in the same direction as $dz$ and $z = \sum_{1-i}^{1+i} dz = i$ hence finally integral will be $Ai$ where $A$ is a total contribution from $\bar H$ $K$ is the vertical line from $1-i$ to $1+i$ and $W$ is the integral of the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$ along this line and by symmetry it is clearly zero. $F$ is the integral of the real part of $\overline{H}$ along this same line, a positive number and so the integral of $H$ along this line segment is a positive multiple of $i$. Hmm I am confused here. "$W$ is the integral of the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$" - I think $W$ is just a regular integral which happens to be a real part of Polya integral. So it is not the integral of imaginary part only as in your answer. Likewise for $F$, this time it is an integral which gives us Flux and happens to be the imaginary part of Polya integral. This is the main reason why Polya vector are useful as they give us both of these information's at once.
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Post by Admin on Jul 10, 2022 6:34:12 GMT
So $\overline{H}$ is a vector in the same direction as $z$. Yes, this is is probably the key factor - that we integrate in the same direction as $dz$ and $z = \sum_{1-i}^{1+i} dz = i$ hence finally integral will be $Ai$ where $A$ is a total contribution from $\bar H$ $K$ is the vertical line from $1-i$ to $1+i$ and $W$ is the integral of the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$ along this line and by symmetry it is clearly zero. $F$ is the integral of the real part of $\overline{H}$ along this same line, a positive number and so the integral of $H$ along this line segment is a positive multiple of $i$. Hmm I am confused here. "$W$ is the integral of the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$" - I think $W$ is just a regular integral which happens to be a real part of Polya integral. So it is not the integral of imaginary part only as in your answer. Likewise for $F$, this time it is an integral which gives us Flux and happens to be the imaginary part of Polya integral. This is the main reason why Polya vector are useful as they give us both of these information's at once. Mondo No, because $W$ is the integral along $K$ of the tangential component, which is the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$. Similarly for $F$ but for the normal to $K$ which is the real part of $\overline{H}$. This is the most important thing to understand here. Vasco
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Post by mondo on Jul 10, 2022 7:36:24 GMT
Hmm that makes sense. So in fact $F$ is calculated by a single multiplication, namely $Re(\bar H) \cdot i$ right?
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Post by Admin on Jul 10, 2022 8:39:12 GMT
Hmm that makes sense. So in fact $F$ is calculated by a single multiplication, namely $Re(\bar H) \cdot i$ right? Mondo Yes. $\overline{H}=|z|^2z$ and $ds=dy$ so $\displaystyle W[\overline{H},K]=\int_{-1}^{+1} \text{Im}(\overline{H})dy=\int_{-1}^{+1} \alpha ydy=0$ where $\alpha=|z|^2$ and $\displaystyle F[\overline{H},K]=\int_{-1}^{+1} \text{Re}(\overline{H})dy$ Since the real part of $\overline{H}$ is positive along $K$ then this integral is positive and so we can see that LHS of (11) $=0+i(\text{positive real number})$ This is an algebraic solution, but you should be able to see this in geometric and physical terms as Needham says just after (11) in the book. Vasco
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Post by mondo on Jul 10, 2022 19:34:09 GMT
$\overline{H}=|z|^2z$ and $ds=dy$ so $\displaystyle W[\overline{H},K]=\int_{-1}^{+1} \text{Im}(\overline{H})dy=\int_{-1}^{+1} \alpha ydy=0$ where $\alpha=|z|^2$ and But if $\bar H = |z|^2$ instead then the above integral won't vanish and will also be a positive multiple of i right? $\displaystyle F[\overline{H},K]=\int_{-1}^{+1} \text{Re}(\overline{H})dy$ We can also rewrite this as $ F[\overline{H},K]= Re(\bar H) \int_{-1}^{+1} dy = Re(\bar H)i $ This is an algebraic solution, but you should be able to see this in geometric and physical terms as Needham says just after (11) in the book. But it is not that obvious, and easy to see as the comment in the book suggests. Or maybe I just need more experience. However what do you mean by gematrical and physical terms? For geometrical I think we need to visualize the vertical path and know how $W$ and $F$ would work on it + notice the symmetry + visualize consecutive terms in Riemann's sum ... again not that quick... What do you mean by physical way of seeing it?
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Post by Admin on Jul 11, 2022 6:32:04 GMT
Mondo
No, if $\overline{H}=|z|^2$ then the integral is even more obviously zero, since the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$ is zero. I would advise you to reread this part of chapter 11 of the book to make sure you fully understand it.
No, because $\text{Re}(\bar H)$ is not constant along $K$ because $|z|^2$ is not constant along $K$ and also $\int_{-1}^{+1} dy=2$ not $i$. Are you sure you understand integration properly?
By physical I mean visualise the Polya vector field graphically in relation to $K$. Draw some pictures either by hand or using a computer.
Vasco
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Post by Admin on Jul 11, 2022 7:13:47 GMT
Mondo
Do you understand that $W[\overline{H},K]$ and $F[\overline{H},K]$ are both real numbers no matter what the function $\overline{H}$ is?
The only reason we get a multiple of $i$ in the exercise is because in (11) the real value of $F$ is multiplied by $i$.
Vasco
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Post by mondo on Jul 11, 2022 21:07:27 GMT
Ok let's clarify it, I prepared a simple graphics that depicts our example: So we have our curve of integration $K$ in green here. First thing I don't get is why in your integrals you write $\int_{-1}^{1}$ while we integrate from $\int_{1-i}^{1+i}$ which is a entirely different path. Hence: $\int_{-1}^{+1} dy=2$ not $i$. should rather be $\int_{1-i}^{1+i} dy=2i$. Let's even make a simple simulation base on my plot - we can treat it as four segments, each of length $0.5i$ hence $4+0.5i = 2i$ Next let's proceed to integration. Here I would also start simple and write equation for work along K for a simple function which Ploya vector is defined as $\bar H = z$. We both agreed that work is a tangent component of our vector hence $W[\bar H, K] = \int_{1-i}^{1+i} \bar H \cdot T dy$. If instead of calculating an integral we write a Riemann's sum of midpoints for these four segments on my plot we get $\sum_{1-i}^{1+i} = (\frac{(1-i)+(1-0.5i)}{2})0.5i + (\frac{(1-0.5)+1}{2})0.5i + (\frac{1+(1+0.5i)}{2})0.5i + (\frac{(1+0.5i)+(1+i)}{2})0.5i = 2i$ So the work is purely imaginary on this path. Next what if $\bar H = |z|^2$? Continuing my Riemann's sum example we have four sums of a real numbers because $|z|^2 = a^2 + b^2$. Since $|1+i|^2 = |1-i|^2 = 2$ and $|1+0.5|^2 = |1-0.5|^2 = 1.25$ the calculation is simple $(\frac{2+1.25}{2})0.5i + (\frac{1+1.25}{2})0.5i + (\frac{1+1.25}{2})0.5i + (\frac{2+1.25}{2})0.5i = 2.75i$ (Exact result for this integral is 2.66(6) so my four point approximation is not that bad). But the key aspect here is the integral is not 0 as you said here: Mondo No, if $\overline{H}=|z|^2$ then the integral is even more obviously zero, since the imaginary part of $\overline{H}$ is zero. Do you agree Vasco?
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Post by Admin on Jul 11, 2022 22:24:57 GMT
Mondo
No I don't agree. You've got it totally wrong. I am writing a detailed document to explain the exercise on page 483.
In the meantime think about this: The second equation from the bottom of page 474 shows that the integral is not an integral with respect to $dz$, as you are insisting on, but with respect to $ds$, which is a real quantity measured along $K$. So $K$ is like a road on a map with $ds$ a small distance along this road. It's clear that these integrals are sums of real numbers not complex numbers. $(X\cdot T)$ is a real number by definition and as I already said $ds$ is also real. Another reason why this must be so is that Work and flux are real numbers.
Vasco
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Post by mondo on Jul 12, 2022 6:52:42 GMT
I am writing a detailed document to explain the exercise on page 483. Thank you Vasco. In the meantime think about this: The second equation from the bottom of page 474 shows that the integral is not an integral with respect to $dz$, as you are insisting on, but with respect to $ds$, which is a real quantity measured along $K$. So $K$ is like a road on a map with $ds$ a small distance along this road. I noticed that the book uses $ds$ for some integrals in this chapter but I somehow continued treating it as $dz$. In fact at the beginning of subsection II, where the Polya vector field is introduced there is a relation between $dz$ and $ds$ -> $dz = e^{i\alpha}ds$. So $ds$ is a small, real increment which $dz$ transforms into a complex increment - is that fair to say? Nonetheless, for our curve $K$, how can we say its length is $2$? It starts at $(1-i)$ and ends at $(1+i)$ so $(1+i) - (1-i) = i + i = 2i$. Which is not surprise since we only move on the imaginary axis Mondo It is not quite correct what you say about $dz$ and $ds$. Here $dz$ is not a transformation(you need to read the first few pages of chapter 1 to learn the nomenclature - modulus, argument etc). $dz$ is a complex number with modulus $ds$ and argument $\alpha$. The difference between two complex numbers (subtraction) is not a distance but another complex number or vector. Have you read the part of the book which explains about regarding complex numbers as vectors? If you have, you seem to have forgotten it! The distance between two complex numbers is the modulus of the vector which joins them i.e. $|(1+i)-(1-i)|=|2i|=2$ In mathematics one has to be precise and words that appear in normal speech often have different more precise meanings in mathematics. Distance is a real positive or zero quantity in mathematics. Notice that if we subtract the two numbers the other way round we get $-2i$ but $|-2i|=2$ again. Two vectors pointing in opposite directions but with the same length.It's clear that these integrals are sums of real numbers not complex numbers. Hmm, it is true that calculation underneath Figure 4 on page 477 use only real numbers. This can also be seen from the last calculation at the bottom of page 482. $Hdz$ contains both work and flux components and they are both real (vector magnitude times appropriate trig function times distance traveled). I think it may all become clear once we answer the above question why the path of integration has length $2$ instead of $2i$. Additionally why the work integral is calculated from imaginary part of $\bar H$. I am not referring to the integral on the left of (11) which is a complex integral, but to the integrals which represent $W$ and $F$ which are both real integrals.$(X\cdot T)$ is a real number by definition and as I already said $ds$ is also real. And so must be $X \cdot N$ as this is a multiplication by a different unit vector to get a perpendicular component. Another reason why this must be so is that Work and flux are real numbers. Well we already got purely imaginary distances which from physical perspective also shall be real. That is why an imaginary work did not surprised me at first. Vasco
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Post by Admin on Jul 12, 2022 11:27:50 GMT
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Post by Admin on Jul 12, 2022 19:35:34 GMT
Mondo
I hope you can see from my diagrams what Needham means when he writes near the top of page 483 just under result (11):
"... draw the Polya vector field of any function you wish to integrate. You can then quickly get a feel for the value of the integral by looking at how much the field flows along and across the contour"
Vasco
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Post by mondo on Jul 13, 2022 7:52:37 GMT
Thank you very much Vasco for correcting all my mistakes and providing materials! Yes now I finally feel I understood the concept. Mondo I hope you can see from my diagrams what Needham means when he writes near the top of page 483 just under result (11): "... draw the Polya vector field of any function you wish to integrate. You can then quickly get a feel for the value of the integral by looking at how much the field flows along and across the contour" Vasco Absolutely! It is very apparent from the diagrams you prepared. They also answer the question why in post #9, my four point Riemann's sum for work failed to vanish. The answer is because I was summing complex numbers instead of complex vectors.
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