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Post by mondo on Feb 11, 2023 22:51:01 GMT
I am not sure if I understand why on figure [32c] and [32d] it is a point $m$ and not $n$ that allows for a mapping $A$ to $A'$ and in the same time for $B$ to $B'$. Is that because it has to be done in the same direction as arrows in $\theta$ indicates at point $m$?
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Post by Admin on Feb 15, 2023 21:46:36 GMT
I am not sure if I understand why on figure [32c] and [32d] it is a point $m$ and not $n$ that allows for a mapping $A$ to $A'$ and in the same time for $B$ to $B'$. Is that because it has to be done in the same direction as arrows in $\theta$ indicates at point $m$? Mondo It is because if you look at [32c] and [32d] you can see that rotating about $n$ will not map $A$ to $A'$ and $B$ to $B'$. Vasco |
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